Related provisions for GEN 1.2.3
1 - 20 of 64 items.
(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Solvency II Directive6) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the appropriate regulator8 has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the appropriate regulator8 to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency
If the transferee is not (and will not be) authorised and will be neither an EEA firm nor a Swiss general insurance company, then the appropriate regulator8 will need to consult the transferee's8 insurance supervisor in the place where the business is to be transferred. The appropriate regulator8 will need confirmation from this supervisor that the transferee will meet his solvency margin requirements there (if any) after the transfer.888
For an amalgamation the successor society, and for a transfer the transferee, may need to apply for permission, or to vary its permission, under Part 4A2 of the Act. The regulators2 will need sufficient time before a transfer is confirmed2 to consider whether any necessary permission or variation should be given. If the transferee is an EEA firm or a Swiss general insurance company, then confirmation will be needed from its Home State regulator that it meets the Home State's solvency
3A firm must demonstrate through backtesting or other appropriate means that its all price risk measure can appropriately explain the historical price variation of these positions. A firm must be able to demonstrate to the appropriate regulator that it can identify the positions within its correlation trading portfolio, in relation to which it is authorised to use the all price risk measure, separately from those other positions in relation to which it is not authorised to do
The application for variation of Part 4A permission27 will need to provide information about the classes of contract of insurance for which variation of Part 4A permission27 is requested and also those classes qualifying to be carried on, on an ancillary or supplementary basis. For example, an insurer applying to vary its permission to include class 10 (motor vehicle liability, other than carrier's liability) must satisfy the FCA27 that it will meet, and continue to meet, threshold
In certain cases, the relevant regulator may consider that granting an application for imposition, variation or cancellation of any requirement or for variation of Part 4A permission27 which includes adding further regulated activities or changing a limitation would cause a significant change in the firm's business or risk profile. In these circumstances, the relevant regulator27 may require the firm to complete appropriate parts of the full application pack (see the relevant
The effect of paragraph 5(1) and 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act is that a Treaty firm which qualifies for authorisation under that Schedule must, at least seven days before it carries on any of the regulated activities covered by its permission, give the appropriate UK regulator10 written notice of its intention to do so. Failure to do so is a criminal offence under paragraph 6(1) of that Schedule.10
(1) A written notice from a Treaty firm under paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act must be: (a) addressed for the attention of the authorisations team in the PRA or FCA, as appropriate; and101010(b) delivered to the appropriate UK regulator10 by one of the methods in (2).10(2) The written notice may be delivered by:(a) post to either of the following addresses, as appropriate:1010(i) the address for notices to the FCA: The Financial Conduct Authority, 12 Endeavour Square, London,
Under section 115 of the Act, the appropriate regulator3 has the power to give a certificate confirming that a firm possesses any necessary margin of solvency,1 to facilitate an insurance business transfer to the firm under overseas legislation from a firm authorised in another EEA State or from a Swiss general insurance company. This section provides guidance on how the appropriate regulator3 would exercise this power and on related matters.313
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator9 immediately it becomes aware of any of the following matters in respect of one or more of its controllers: 9(1) if a controller, or any entity subject to his control, is or has been the subject of any legal action or investigation which might put into question the integrity of the controller; (2) if there is a significant deterioration in the financial position of a controller; (3) if a corporate controller undergoes a substantial
A UK firm17 cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the relevant13 conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5)12 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:913121213(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20 in accordance with the
(1) Save where (1A) applies, if19 the appropriate UK regulator20 gives a consent notice, it will inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so.20(1A) If the UK firm’sEEA right derives from the IDD, where the appropriate UK regulator has given a consent notice and the Host State regulator has acknowledged receipt of that notice, the appropriate UK regulator must give written notice to the UK firm concerned that the Host State regulator has received the consent notice.19(2)
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than7 an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. 1(2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed
(1) Unless the EEA firm3(other than7 an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)331is passporting under the IDD8, if the appropriate UK regulator9 receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required , is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the appropriate UK regulator9 will, under paragraphs 14(2) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the EEA firm of the
(1) 4Unless required to do so under the regulatory system, a firm must ensure that neither it nor anyone acting on its behalf claims, in a public statement or to a client, expressly or by implication, that its affairs, or any aspect of them, have the approval or endorsement of the FCA6 or another competent authority.(1A) 7Paragraph (1) does not apply to a firm to the extent that it is incompatible with the United Kingdom’s obligations under article 44(8) of the MiFID Org Regulation.
8(2) [deleted]17(2A) If the UK firm’sEEA right derives from the IDD, paragraph 20(3B)(a) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator to send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator within one month of receipt.198(2B) Where a consent notice is given under the UCITS Directive, the FCA20 will at the same time:1020(a) communicate to the Host State regulator details of the compensation scheme intended to protect investors; and10(b)
This chapter does not apply to:(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part 4A16 of the Act (see the appropriate UK regulator's website www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and
(1) A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part 4A permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time:15(a) comply with:15(i) SUP 10A.14.8R (for a firm that is not an SMCR firm20);15(ii) SUP 10C.14.5R (for an SMCR firm20); or15(iii) the corresponding PRA requirements; and15(b) notify the the FCA or PRA20 of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions specified by that regulator.15(2) These forms should give the effective date